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for part d ii) do i always need to divide 3! (factorial) because there are same number of people in all the groups
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how to do part c)
I think the division by 3! is because of the issue with ordering here.
Suppose you had persons A, B, C, ..., L
And you had groups 1, 2, 3
Group 3 having A B C D and group A having E F G H
is the same outcome as group 3 having E F G H and group A having A B C D.
Edit: On further thought, it's probably tied down with the fact there's the same people in each group as well.____________________________________________________
^5\\=\cos^5\theta + \binom{5}{1}i\cos^4\theta \sin\theta + \binom{5}{2}i^2\cos^3\theta \sin^2 \theta+\binom{5}{3}i^3\cos^2\theta\sin^3\theta+\binom{5}{4}i^4\cos\theta\sin^4\theta+i^5\sin^5\theta)
I can't see the rest of the question (I know where it's headed though. Just equate real or imaginary parts for part (ii), picking whichever one is appropriate.)