Hi friends, I'm having a bit of trouble with this one application of de moivre's theorem...
Could someone please show me their method to solve z^3 + i = 0.
Thank you!
z3 + i = 0
z3 = -i (Think of an Argand diagram. is represented by a point 1 unit vertically downwards)
so,
From there, it is in the standard form for these kinds of questions, so I'll let you work it out, if you have trouble working it out, reply again and myself or someone else will explain it to you.
It's just I had a lesson today with a new tutor and she had this totally different method to the book (with the 2kpi etc, letting k=1, k=2) and it confused me. She made sin(theta)=0 and cos(theta)=1, and then had like 0, 2pi, 4pi etc. Still got the right answers but it was weird and not sure if better.
edit:
to make it more clear, if z^3 = 8i was the thing, she'd make r=2 and then sin(theta)=1 and then cos(theta)=0. I kinda understand what she's doing with the expansion of cis(theta) and then equating real and imaginary sides, but I don't entirely get what was done from there.